
Preparing for the Project Management Professional (PMP) certification requires thorough knowledge of project management principles and extensive practice with exam-style questions. This comprehensive guide provides over 60 practice questions that reflect the current PMP exam format and content outline for 2025.
The PMP exam continues to evolve, with the 2025 version emphasizing three key domains:
The exam consists of 180 questions to be completed in 230 minutes, including multiple-choice, multiple-select, matching, hotspot, and fill-in-the-blank questions.
Question 1: A team member frequently submits work late and below quality standards. As the project manager, what should be your first response?
Answer: C Explanation: Always begin with direct communication to understand potential barriers or challenges the team member might be facing before escalating or taking corrective action.
Question 2: During a project, two team members have a conflict regarding technical approach. What conflict resolution technique should you try first?
Answer: C Explanation: Collaboration seeks to find a solution that fully satisfies both parties' concerns and is considered the most effective approach for technical disputes where finding the best solution is crucial.
Question 3: A stakeholder is consistently missing meetings and not responding to communications. What is the best way to address this issue?
Answer: C Explanation: Adapting your communication methods to suit stakeholder preferences often resolves engagement issues without escalation.
Question 4: Your project team includes members from different cultural backgrounds. What leadership approach would be most effective?
Answer: B Explanation: Recognizing cultural differences and adapting leadership approaches accordingly demonstrates cultural intelligence and improves team effectiveness.
Question 5: Which motivation theory suggests that individuals are motivated by achievement, power, and affiliation?
Answer: C Explanation: McClelland's Theory focuses on three needs: achievement, power, and affiliation, which drive workplace behavior.
Question 6: A project is running behind schedule. The critical path analysis reveals that Activity D has 10 days of total float. What does this mean?
Answer: B Explanation: Total float represents the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date.
Question 7: When creating a project schedule, you notice that a critical path activity has significant uncertainty. What technique should you use to address this?
Answer: C Explanation: Three-point estimating (optimistic, most likely, pessimistic) helps account for uncertainty in activity duration estimates.
Question 8: You're managing a project using an agile approach. Which of the following is NOT a typical agile practice?
Answer: B Explanation: Detailed upfront planning contradicts agile's iterative and incremental approach that emphasizes adaptability over comprehensive planning.
Question 9: A key stakeholder requests a significant scope change midway through the project. What should you do first?
Answer: C Explanation: Before making any decision about a change request, a proper impact analysis must be conducted to understand the consequences.
Question 10: In earned value management, if the CPI is 0.85, what does this indicate?
Answer: B Explanation: A Cost Performance Index (CPI) below 1.0 indicates the project is over budget, specifically getting only $0.85 of value for every $1 spent.
Question 11: Your organization operates in a heavily regulated industry. What should you include in your project management plan to address this?
Answer: B Explanation: A comprehensive approach to regulatory compliance requires both strategy and specific requirement tracking.
Question 12: When determining project benefits, which of the following is NOT typically considered?
Answer: C Explanation: The project manager's performance rating is not a business benefit measurement, while the other options are financial metrics for evaluating project benefits.
Question 13: Your company has limited resources and must choose between several proposed projects. Which selection method focuses on maximizing the economic value of projects?
Answer: B Explanation: Benefit-cost ratio analysis specifically compares the economic benefits to costs to select projects with the highest return.
With the increasing adoption of agile and hybrid methodologies, the PMP exam now includes significant content on these approaches.
Question 14: In an agile project, the product owner's primary responsibility is:
Answer: B Explanation: The product owner is responsible for maximizing value by prioritizing the product backlog to reflect business needs and customer requirements.
Question 15: Which statement about hybrid project management approaches is correct?
Answer: A Explanation: Hybrid approaches combine elements of predictive (waterfall) and adaptive (agile) methods to leverage the strengths of each based on project needs.
The 2025 PMP exam emphasizes advanced concepts that project managers need in today's complex environment.
Question 16: When using the Delphi technique to estimate project costs, which is true?
Answer: B Explanation: The Delphi technique gathers expert opinions anonymously to prevent bias and group think.
Question 17: A risk has a 30% probability of occurrence and would result in a $100,000 impact. What is its expected monetary value (EMV)?
Answer: A Explanation: EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.3 × $100,000 = $30,000
Earning your PMP certification requires dedicated study and practice. Consider these strategies:
For the most current exam preparation, consider enrolling in a PMP certification training program that provides updated materials and expert instruction.
Question 18: During risk identification, your team identifies a risk with both positive and negative implications. This type of risk is called:
Answer: D Explanation: Bidirectional risks have both potential positive and negative effects and require careful management strategies.
Question 19: Which risk response strategy attempts to eliminate the threat by removing its cause?
Answer: C Explanation: Avoidance aims to eliminate the threat entirely by removing its cause or changing project plans to circumvent it.
Question 20: In a fixed-price contract, who bears the majority of the risk?
Answer: B Explanation: In fixed-price contracts, the seller bears most of the risk because they must deliver the specified scope for the agreed price regardless of their actual costs.
The PMP exam continues to evolve to reflect the changing landscape of project management. By practicing with these questions and investing in proper PMP certification training, you'll be well-prepared to pass the exam and excel in your project management career.
Remember that real exam success comes from understanding concepts deeply rather than memorizing answers. Focus on applying project management principles to various scenarios and contexts.
For more PMP exam preparation resources, check out:
Good luck on your PMP certification journey!