Top 60+ PMP Exam Questions and Answers for 2025 - Complete Practice Guide

Blog Author
Siddharth
Published
16 Apr, 2025
Top 60+ Pmp Exam Question & Answers

Preparing for the Project Management Professional (PMP) certification requires thorough knowledge of project management principles and extensive practice with exam-style questions. This comprehensive guide provides over 60 practice questions that reflect the current PMP exam format and content outline for 2025.

What to Expect on the PMP Exam in 2025

The PMP exam continues to evolve, with the 2025 version emphasizing three key domains:

  1. People (42% of exam questions)
  2. Process (50% of exam questions)
  3. Business Environment (8% of exam questions)

The exam consists of 180 questions to be completed in 230 minutes, including multiple-choice, multiple-select, matching, hotspot, and fill-in-the-blank questions.

Practice Questions by Domain

People Domain (Leadership and Team Management)

Question 1: A team member frequently submits work late and below quality standards. As the project manager, what should be your first response?

  • A) Escalate to their functional manager
  • B) Assign them simpler tasks
  • C) Meet privately to understand the underlying issues
  • D) Document the performance issues formally

Answer: C Explanation: Always begin with direct communication to understand potential barriers or challenges the team member might be facing before escalating or taking corrective action.

Question 2: During a project, two team members have a conflict regarding technical approach. What conflict resolution technique should you try first?

  • A) Forcing
  • B) Compromising
  • C) Collaborating
  • D) Avoiding

Answer: C Explanation: Collaboration seeks to find a solution that fully satisfies both parties' concerns and is considered the most effective approach for technical disputes where finding the best solution is crucial.

Question 3: A stakeholder is consistently missing meetings and not responding to communications. What is the best way to address this issue?

  • A) Remove them from the stakeholder register
  • B) Escalate to the project sponsor
  • C) Modify your communication approach to better meet their needs
  • D) Continue with the current approach but document the lack of engagement

Answer: C Explanation: Adapting your communication methods to suit stakeholder preferences often resolves engagement issues without escalation.

Question 4: Your project team includes members from different cultural backgrounds. What leadership approach would be most effective?

  • A) Apply a uniform management style to ensure fairness
  • B) Adapt your leadership style based on cultural considerations
  • C) Establish strict protocols that apply to everyone equally
  • D) Allow team members to set their own working procedures

Answer: B Explanation: Recognizing cultural differences and adapting leadership approaches accordingly demonstrates cultural intelligence and improves team effectiveness.

Question 5: Which motivation theory suggests that individuals are motivated by achievement, power, and affiliation?

  • A) Expectancy Theory
  • B) Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
  • C) McClelland's Theory of Needs
  • D) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

Answer: C Explanation: McClelland's Theory focuses on three needs: achievement, power, and affiliation, which drive workplace behavior.

Process Domain (Project Management Methodologies)

Question 6: A project is running behind schedule. The critical path analysis reveals that Activity D has 10 days of total float. What does this mean?

  • A) Activity D must be completed within 10 days
  • B) Activity D can be delayed up to 10 days without delaying the project end date
  • C) Activity D requires 10 additional days to complete
  • D) Activity D is 10 days ahead of schedule

Answer: B Explanation: Total float represents the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date.

Question 7: When creating a project schedule, you notice that a critical path activity has significant uncertainty. What technique should you use to address this?

  • A) Resource leveling
  • B) Fast tracking
  • C) Three-point estimating
  • D) Critical chain method

Answer: C Explanation: Three-point estimating (optimistic, most likely, pessimistic) helps account for uncertainty in activity duration estimates.

Question 8: You're managing a project using an agile approach. Which of the following is NOT a typical agile practice?

  • A) Daily stand-up meetings
  • B) Detailed upfront planning
  • C) Sprint retrospectives
  • D) Continuous customer feedback

Answer: B Explanation: Detailed upfront planning contradicts agile's iterative and incremental approach that emphasizes adaptability over comprehensive planning.

Question 9: A key stakeholder requests a significant scope change midway through the project. What should you do first?

  • A) Reject the change as it's too late in the project
  • B) Implement the change immediately
  • C) Analyze the impact on time, cost, and quality
  • D) Consult with the project team only

Answer: C Explanation: Before making any decision about a change request, a proper impact analysis must be conducted to understand the consequences.

Question 10: In earned value management, if the CPI is 0.85, what does this indicate?

  • A) The project is under budget
  • B) The project is over budget
  • C) The project is ahead of schedule
  • D) The project is behind schedule

Answer: B Explanation: A Cost Performance Index (CPI) below 1.0 indicates the project is over budget, specifically getting only $0.85 of value for every $1 spent.

Business Environment (Strategic and Business Knowledge)

Question 11: Your organization operates in a heavily regulated industry. What should you include in your project management plan to address this?

  • A) A compliance register only
  • B) A compliance strategy and regulatory requirements matrix
  • C) A stakeholder engagement plan focused on regulators
  • D) A risk response plan only

Answer: B Explanation: A comprehensive approach to regulatory compliance requires both strategy and specific requirement tracking.

Question 12: When determining project benefits, which of the following is NOT typically considered?

  • A) Return on Investment (ROI)
  • B) Net Present Value (NPV)
  • C) Project Manager's performance rating
  • D) Payback period

Answer: C Explanation: The project manager's performance rating is not a business benefit measurement, while the other options are financial metrics for evaluating project benefits.

Question 13: Your company has limited resources and must choose between several proposed projects. Which selection method focuses on maximizing the economic value of projects?

  • A) Scoring model
  • B) Benefit-cost ratio analysis
  • C) Checklist model
  • D) Murder board

Answer: B Explanation: Benefit-cost ratio analysis specifically compares the economic benefits to costs to select projects with the highest return.

Hybrid and Agile Approaches

With the increasing adoption of agile and hybrid methodologies, the PMP exam now includes significant content on these approaches.

Question 14: In an agile project, the product owner's primary responsibility is:

  • A) Managing the technical implementation
  • B) Prioritizing the product backlog
  • C) Removing impediments for the team
  • D) Conducting daily stand-ups

Answer: B Explanation: The product owner is responsible for maximizing value by prioritizing the product backlog to reflect business needs and customer requirements.

Question 15: Which statement about hybrid project management approaches is correct?

  • A) They combine predictive and adaptive approaches for optimal results
  • B) They are less effective than pure methodologies
  • C) They only work for software development projects
  • D) They eliminate the need for formal documentation

Answer: A Explanation: Hybrid approaches combine elements of predictive (waterfall) and adaptive (agile) methods to leverage the strengths of each based on project needs.

Advanced PMP Concepts

The 2025 PMP exam emphasizes advanced concepts that project managers need in today's complex environment.

Question 16: When using the Delphi technique to estimate project costs, which is true?

  • A) It requires face-to-face meetings of all experts
  • B) It uses anonymous expert opinions to avoid bias
  • C) It primarily relies on historical data
  • D) It must be conducted in multiple rounds

Answer: B Explanation: The Delphi technique gathers expert opinions anonymously to prevent bias and group think.

Question 17: A risk has a 30% probability of occurrence and would result in a $100,000 impact. What is its expected monetary value (EMV)?

  • A) $30,000
  • B) $70,000
  • C) $100,000
  • D) $300,000

Answer: A Explanation: EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.3 × $100,000 = $30,000

Preparing for PMP Success

Earning your PMP certification requires dedicated study and practice. Consider these strategies:

  1. Take a comprehensive PMP training course that covers all exam domains
  2. Practice with simulation exams that mimic the actual test environment
  3. Form study groups with other PMP candidates
  4. Review the PMBOK Guide and Agile Practice Guide thoroughly

For the most current exam preparation, consider enrolling in a PMP certification training program that provides updated materials and expert instruction.

More Practice Questions

Risk Management

Question 18: During risk identification, your team identifies a risk with both positive and negative implications. This type of risk is called:

  • A) Residual risk
  • B) Secondary risk
  • C) Opportunity
  • D) Bidirectional risk

Answer: D Explanation: Bidirectional risks have both potential positive and negative effects and require careful management strategies.

Question 19: Which risk response strategy attempts to eliminate the threat by removing its cause?

  • A) Mitigate
  • B) Transfer
  • C) Avoid
  • D) Accept

Answer: C Explanation: Avoidance aims to eliminate the threat entirely by removing its cause or changing project plans to circumvent it.

Procurement Management

Question 20: In a fixed-price contract, who bears the majority of the risk?

  • A) The buyer
  • B) The seller
  • C) Both equally
  • D) The project manager

Answer: B Explanation: In fixed-price contracts, the seller bears most of the risk because they must deliver the specified scope for the agreed price regardless of their actual costs.

Conclusion

The PMP exam continues to evolve to reflect the changing landscape of project management. By practicing with these questions and investing in proper PMP certification training, you'll be well-prepared to pass the exam and excel in your project management career.

Remember that real exam success comes from understanding concepts deeply rather than memorizing answers. Focus on applying project management principles to various scenarios and contexts.

For more PMP exam preparation resources, check out:

 

Good luck on your PMP certification journey!

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